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Obstetrics & GynaecologyEpisiotomy

Q4. In the repair of a mediolateral episiotomy, what is the correct order of tissue approximation during suturing?

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NEET-PG2025Repeats: 2020
Obstetrics & GynaecologySigns of Pregnancy

Q5. A woman with 2 months of amenorrhea presents with a positive urine pregnancy test, enlarged breasts with Montgomery tubercles, linea nigra, bluish discoloration of the vaginal mucosa and uterine enlargement on bimanual examination. These findings are best categorized as:

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NEET-PG2025Repeats: 2019
Obstetrics & GynaecologyUterine Rupture / VBAC

Q6. A G2P2 woman with a history of previous lower segment cesarean section is in active labor. She suddenly develops fetal bradycardia, maternal tachycardia, and severe suprapubic pain during contractions. On examination, the cervix is 6 cm dilated, and the fetal head is at -1 station. What is the next best step in management?

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NEET-PG2025Repeats: 2022
Obstetrics & GynaecologyCarcinoma Cervix Staging

Q7. Hydronephrosis due to carcinoma cervix is seen in which FIGO stage?

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NEET-PG2025Repeats: 2018, 2021, 2024
Obstetrics & GynaecologyPostpartum Hemorrhage

Q8. A woman develops atonic postpartum hemorrhage that does not respond to initial management and medical therapy. What is the next best step that can be performed in the labor room?

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NEET-PG2025Repeats: 2020, 2023
Obstetrics & GynaecologyShoulder Dystocia

Q9. A primigravida undergoing vaginal delivery delivers the fetal head, but the shoulders fail to deliver. What is the correct sequence of maneuvers in managing this obstetric emergency?

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NEET-PG2025Repeats: 2021, 2024
Obstetrics & GynaecologyPostmenopausal Bleeding

Q11. An elderly woman presents for routine check up, on examination blood pressure of 170/100 mmHg is recorded and she also complains of blood-stained vaginal discharge. What is the most appropriate next step in her management?

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NEET-PG2025Repeats: 2020
Obstetrics & GynaecologyAbnormal Uterine Bleeding / Endometrial Cancer

Q12. A 46-year-old nulliparous woman presents with abnormal uterine bleeding. Transvaginal ultrasound shows endometrial thickness of 24 mm. What is the next best step in management?

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NEET-PG2025Repeats: 2023
Obstetrics & GynaecologyDVT Prophylaxis in Pregnancy

Q15. A 32-year-old woman with a BMI of 38 undergoes lower segment cesarean section at 35 weeks gestation due to preeclampsia. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacological agent for deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis in this patient?

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NEET-PG2025Repeats: 2024
Obstetrics & GynaecologyFetal Surveillance / NST

Q17. A 24-year-old primigravida at 36 weeks gestation presents with complaints of no fetal movements for the past 24 hours. A non-stress test is performed and shows one acceleration in 20 minutes with no fetal decelerations. What is the next best step in management?

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NEET-PG2025Repeats: 2021
Obstetrics & GynaecologyTORCH Infections in Pregnancy

Q18. A pregnant woman in her first trimester presents with lymphadenopathy. There is a positive history of Toxoplasmosis infection 2 years ago. Her current serology shows Toxoplasma IgG positive. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

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NEET-PG2025Repeats: 2019
Obstetrics & GynaecologyHyperprolactinemia / Prolactinoma

Q19. A woman presents with galactorrhea and amenorrhea. She is diagnosed with a prolactinoma. Which of the following mechanisms best explains the cause of her amenorrhea?

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NEET-PG2025Repeats: 2022
Obstetrics & GynaecologyObstetric Ultrasound / Gestational Age

Q20. A woman presents with 2 months of amenorrhea and a positive urine pregnancy test. Which of the following is the most accurate ultrasound parameter to estimate gestational age at this stage of pregnancy?

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NEET-PG2025Repeats: 2018, 2021
MicrobiologyStreptococcal Infections

Q24. Group A Streptococcus is the most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis in school aged children. Which of the following bacterial components is primarily responsible for its attachment to fibronectin on the epithelial lining of the pharynx?

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NEET-PG2025Repeats: 2021
MicrobiologyOncogenic Viruses

Q26. Patient presents with a persistent red lesion over the lateral border of the tongue that has not healed for several weeks. Biopsy confirms squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity. Which of the following viral infections is most likely associated with the development of this malignancy?

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NEET-PG2025Repeats: 2020, 2022
MicrobiologyFungal Infections / Aspergillosis

Q27. A 40-year-old immunocompromised patient presents with fever, productive cough, and episodes of hemoptysis. Chest imaging shows cavitary lesions in the lungs. BAL is performed, and microscopy reveals acute-angled, septate hyphae with dichotomous branching. What is the most likely causative organism?

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NEET-PG2025Repeats: 2019, 2021, 2024
MicrobiologyAerobic Actinomycetes / Nocardia

Q29. A 50-year-old immunocompromised man presents with chronic meningitis features. Microscopy reveals Gram-positive, branching filamentous bacteria. The organism is acid-fast on modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain, and grows on paraffin bait culture. What is the most likely causative organism?

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NEET-PG2025Repeats: 2021, 2023
MicrobiologyFood-borne Illness / Campylobacter

Q30. An outbreak of dysentery-like illness occurred in an old age home. The patients presented with bloody diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and fever. A history reveals that a social worker had brought and served raw, unpasteurized milk to the residents. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?

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NEET-PG2025Repeats: 2022
PathologyAcute Leukemia / Cytogenetics

Q31. An elderly male presents with progressive cervical lymphadenopathy and increased bleeding tendency. Peripheral blood smear shows >25% blasts, cytochemistry reveals MPO positivity, and the findings shown below are consistent with this condition. Which of the following cytogenetic abnormalities is most likely associated with it?

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NEET-PG2025Repeats: 2019, 2022
PathologyThyroid Tumors

Q33. A 50-year-old female presents with a firm thyroid swelling. FNAC reveals marked cellular pleomorphism with variation in cell size and shape. Histopathology shows amyloid deposition in the stroma. Immunohistochemistry is TTF-1 negative, positive for chromogranin and synaptophysin. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

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NEET-PG2025Repeats: 2020, 2023
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